| Gender Wage Gap | |
|---|---|
| Topic Started: Yesterday, 9:43 PM (14 Views) | |
| Soopairik | Yesterday, 9:43 PM Post #1 |
|
Administrator
|
Does it exist in your country? If so, to what extent and what your counterarguments when people say things that oppose your initial claim? |
![]() |
|
| Jinfengopteryx | Today, 10:12 AM Post #2 |
![]()
|
Unadjusted, women earn 22-23% less than men on average. Adjusted, we are talking about 2-7% (funnily, in East Germany, the adjusted gender pay gap is higher than the unadjusted one). Note that none of them actually measure discrimination. The adjusted gender pay gap can either over- or underestimate discrimination, but I think it is a good approximation. |
![]() |
|
| Soopairik | Today, 10:27 AM Post #3 |
|
Administrator
|
Why do you think it does not directly causate to discrimination? |
![]() |
|
| Jinfengopteryx | Today, 12:39 PM Post #4 |
![]()
|
The adjusted gender pay gap tries to create parity between men and women by correcting for hours worked, occupation or education. However, this "parity" is not sufficient to measure discrimination. It can overestimate discrimination because there could be unknown factors that have not been adjusted for (the discovery of such "new factors" has happened before). It can also underestimate the impact of discrimination because some of the disparities in factors corrected for are already the result of discrimination. Some of the disparity in education can be attributed to the well-known "stereotype threat" for example (for example, girls are not expected to be good at maths which negatively influences their performance, for further reading: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stereotype_threat ). |
![]() |
|
| 1 user reading this topic (1 Guest and 0 Anonymous) | |
| « Previous Topic · General Political Discussion · Next Topic » |







4:48 PM Jul 10